2007-02-07, 18:45 | Link #44 | |
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I mean, it could simply mean it's part of a single country, Japan was independent from all the major powers, there is no reason to suggest that it was the only one. The only reason Britannica Empire hasn't invade India, could be that there is no worth while reason.
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2007-02-07, 18:50 | Link #45 |
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there's also the posibility that india is a de facto ally of the Britannians. (so as to avoid becoming an area)
after all, Laksharta and Lloyd apparently worked together in the past. he also pointed out he didn't think she'd be helping the Japanese. |
2007-02-11, 12:51 | Link #46 | |
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Beyond that we don't know much. Britannia must have conquered (or united with) Scotland at some point, given the reference to Edinburgh in episode 12. If Britannia gained control of Scotland before or during Tudor times as a result of these changes then the Civil War would either of never happened or would have been won by the royalists. No Cromwell, would mean no invasion of Ireland, which would mean no American Independence as described by Onizuka-GTO. I'm also liable to agree that Britannia lost Trafalgar because they didn't have Nelson, but don't ask why he wasn't there. All we know is that the seat of Britannian power shifted as a result from Britain to America, to the point where we don't even know if Britannia even control the British Isles. |
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2007-02-21, 09:21 | Link #49 | |
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Also, while it may seem logical to name a newly conquered with an ascending numeric number, other logic dictates that it could easily be name in an numeric order depending on its geographic location/it's landmass with in it's defined national borders or even the resources/civil infrastructure/economy it has, at the time of the assessment or during or/and after the conquest. In short, while it is generally agreed the B.E is a vast empire that could possibly rival or surpass the real life B.E. i.e. "The sun never sets in the British Empire" There is no evidence to suggest that there are "18 Areas" of equal status.
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2007-02-22, 13:03 | Link #52 |
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you're wrong. I'm just looking at this picture :
As you can see, Britania is attacking Japan from different direction. That mean, they already have control of those rounded areas on the map before the start of the attack. Furthermore, the area 18 seems to be a desert. Then I doubt it is on one of those islands.... Then, logically, there is : area 18 (desert unknow) area 11 (Japan) at least one more area (assuming all of those islands are only one area number). That's why I said "at least more than 2 areas" Don't worry, it's not mandatory for you (or anyone else) to agree with me... |
2007-02-22, 18:40 | Link #53 | |
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Nice, but unfortunately you missed a crucial factor, if those area you have labelled with question marks were part of the Britannica Empire, how come they were not marked in the same colour as the main North American continent, in that same khaki colour? Those three areas are highly suspected because: A) The far left area is coloured green, logically this is to show on a map of conquest the respected opposing forces. B) The two remianing areas showed no land area, not even a spec. To account for A. Can be easily deduced by observing modern military history, they can easily be an occupying base, situated in a country due to treaty agreements. We can see that even today ,as there are many US Bases situated in other countries such as the UK, Germany and Japan, who can easily send out attacking forces. This does not mean that these countries are part of the US. Another possibilities is that those points were navy task fleets, movable bases, for the forces to attack from, as was seen in the Gulf War. Simply put there is no evidence yet to support that there are more then 2 "Areas" except 11 & 18.
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2007-02-23, 03:21 | Link #54 | |
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I guess they are not the same color simply because, they are assimilated, not the "home town" of the empire. In others words, they have not the same value as the north america.
Japan is in red because it's the current target. Another thing : if you look carefully at this pic in the episode before the zoom out, you can read "Britania" . Why would they write that name if it was not a part of the empire ? Quote:
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2007-02-23, 04:54 | Link #55 | |||
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so...what happened to the Chinese Federation? No wait, I get you, the Chinese Federation must mean a Federation of CHINESE not INCLUDING China! Aha! I see your logic! No. actually, I don't. Quote:
It is a simple reminder that those are bases or gathering of Britannica Forces in a country of location not claimed by them, but are allowing them to attack from. This gives doubt to your claim that these areas are part of the B.E. Quote:
From my logical deduction, this means logically that a large portion of the far east, including China itself, either part of the B.E. or allies of unequal status who are willing to help the B.E. to attack Japan. By this line of reasoning, this means that if those far south points were naval bases/task force they will not be threaten by the Chinese federation, because the surrounding area marked "green" is friendly territory. hell even China is friendly. Anway, if you have seen Episode 18, you would of noticed that Zero/lulu mentioned that if Japan had continued to struggle eventually the E.U. & Chinese Federation would of jumped in to contest for a piece of Japan. this is logical, as unless you have a specific defence treaty with the country being attacked, it is usually logical for opposing fractions who are at a technological disadvantage to assess the situation and precipitate when the opportunity arrives. In all conflict there has not been one incident when an unrelated country has opposed another invasion force intended for a country they were not obliged to defend. America did not jump to help Europe when Germany Attacked the UK, they waited until they saw that the Brits repelled the invasion. however Britain joined the war, when its ally Poland was attacked, they were obliged by the defence treaty to come to it's defence. So in conclusion, there is still no evidence that your theory holds any ground. Sorry.
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2007-02-23, 05:35 | Link #56 |
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Part One of a Ridiculous Attempt to Explain Things
I have been following this topic for a while now, and while I find the discussion and speculation interesting, I think looking at the tangents between the Geass timeline and our own is necessary to get to the more interesting parts of the story's alternate history.
The split between our timelines is officially addressed in the DVD 1 script between Lelouch and Suzaku, when they discuss the origins of Britannia's history. Taken from verity_isle at the Code Geass Livejournal community, cut for length: Spoiler:
As silly as the conversation is intended to be, it is clear that the timeline of Code Geass begins at around 55 to 54 B.C., as speculated previously by others. They don’t give us a name for the Celtic king/chieftain, but this does mark the beginning of Throne Britannia. History differences: Britain does not become a Roman Province, an absolute monarchy is established, and the Celtic tribes are unified. The Roman and Sub-Roman periods of Britain’s history are effectively eliminated, because of the obvious lack of Roman presence and influence. History similarities: Well this is where everything should be completely different, because this era of British history was defined by Roman influence. The Middle Ages have not been addressed by the writers of Code Geass, so it is impossible to determine how the timeline split affects this period of history. Everyone is free to speculate on this era. History differences: Damned if I know. Early Modern Britain (as the Wikipedia article calls it) has deviations apparent from the history lessons at Ashford Academy. The textbook from episode 7 gives us some insight as to what is happening here: Taken from logi at the Code Geass Livejournal community: Spoiler:
The journal entry speculates that Henry IX was the son of Elizabeth I, but this is unlikely to be the case. The textbook itself goes on to mention kings such as Henry X and Edward VI, the former of which is fictional and the latter of which died at age sixteen. If the monarchy following the Wars of the Roses remains unaltered from our own timeline, then Henry VIII of the Geass timeline would be the same as the Henry VIII of our own. The information points to this conclusion because of the existence of Edward VI, whose history is only altered that he lived to reign rather than having died young. Henry IX and X could then be assumed to be heirs of either Catherine of Aragon or Anne Boleyn, or one from each. They can also be speculated to be the children of these marriages that did not survive into adulthood, and Geass history merely rewrote them as Henry IX and Henry X. Edward VI was the heir to the throne from Jane Seymour, and Geass rewrites history so that he lives and has a prosperous reign. Aside from an altered family tree for the Tudor family, the textbook mentions that the English absolute monarchy remained as such, while the rest of Europe was in the midst of revolution and “parliamentarization”. This is also a far departure from our timeline in that Britain was actually one of the first countries to have a system of parliament, dating back officially to Henry III. Take note however, that royal supremacy was restored at about the time Henry VIII came to the throne, and the parliament behaved submissively under his rule. Perhaps the parliament was dissolved by the king? Or did it never exist at all? I’ll leave it to the Geass writers to tell us that. Furthermore, as much as the textbook makes Britannia superior for maintaining order and prosperity at the time, it outlines the foundations of what many of us might believe to be the EU, similar to our own European Union of today. Why would this version of Europe become the EU? Europe at this point in history was a collection of various monarchies in a great struggle to control colonization. Geass history paints the picture so that the rest of Europe was more politically progressive than Britain, which is the stark opposite of how it was in ours. The text mentions the New World, which Western culture knows as the Americas during the Age of Discovery. We can then assume that Britain as this point is in control of colonies at this time, similar to how the British Empire also began colonization at this period of history. We know by history of the colonies of Newfoundland, the Thirteen Colonies comprising the original United States, Canada’s Atlantic Provinces, and Britain’s claims to the Caribbean at Barbados and Jamaica. There are also the various colonies controlled by other countries of Europe, but there are far too many for me to list. For how I will explain Britain’s later history, let’s just assume that Britain still controls its colonies up until the American Revolution, where many feel that the greatest tangent lies. History differences: The altered line of kings (Henry IX, Henry X, Edward VI), less progressive Britain and the absence of Parliament in Brittanian history, and a more progressive Europe earlier in history. History similarities: Colonization continues for both Britain and Europe. I'll get to how Britainnia ended up in the America in another post when I've thought about it some more, although the alternate results of the Battle of Trafalgar play a role in that. The parallels between Geass history and the history of Modern Britain are where it'll get tough, especially in regard to technology during the World Wars, if they ever happened the way we know they did. |
2007-02-23, 07:37 | Link #57 | ||
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1. that country may not be really happy with that and that could cause a little war (win Britania of course) 2. Britania isn't the kind of empire to ask nicely other country to lend them some part of their territory, they'll take the entire country in one shot, that's easier 3. China would not be happy with that and like I said earlier, if it was only a fleet without other support far away any base of the empire, it would be easy for the china to attack them due to proximity. Quote:
btw, no I didn't see the 18 for now. @random : I think you could be right. It would make senses that Bratina and Europe have kept their colonies. I would even say that it will be strange for Britania for not take them back (if they ever lost them). As for the Great Britain, they would definitively recover it, just because of pride. Last edited by Alucard24; 2007-02-23 at 07:43. Reason: answer to random |
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2007-02-23, 14:55 | Link #58 | |
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Area 11 and Area 18. Thank you for talking round in circles. As for time of conquest I hear from some where that that if you calculate that 55 BC was the starting point, that the current time which is 2017ATC is roughly 1962. Now if that's true, then it will explain why they have the current situation, we can tentatively conclude that at ONE world war occurred as the British never would of developed the Tank, if they were not stuck in a lengthy war, to bring about such accelerated push in military technology. Now lets just imagine, that if the First world war occurred but but slightly differently, as in it would of been the B.E versus the EU/Austria-Hungary, Bulgaria, the German Empire & Ottoman Empire. but from the Americas with vastly more man power,it could influence the way the defence Treaty that laid the seeds to the Great War. The only reason the Great War fell to the Alliance was the fall of Imperial Russia, if Russia never had the Communist revolution, and was in fact an Ally to the Central Power, it could be conceive that the Great War could actually continued way into the early 1930's. Concluding in the victory of the Central Powers forming the Core of the European Union, this would forsaken the tragic misgiving of a certain Jewish soldier with a grudge against Germany... This either throws off the Second World War, delay it (hence the 30yrs later), or what we are seeing now is still a low intensity Second World War in widely distributed skirmishes between the three main powers. All this means is that the second huge push in technological advancement would be delayed and hence no nuclear weapons. Well, at leased Japan is happy, it didn't get nuked.
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