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Old 2008-09-30, 14:30   Link #3068
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Join Date: Feb 2008
Originally Posted by Tael View Post
There is something to say it didn't work, its actually pretty obvious, he had the code. And since he is shown having the code a minute or so later, it's pretty easy to say on substantiated grounds that the Geass had no affect. The only claim you have is 'it was ambiguous'. The progression is pretty simple:

Geass from Lelouch but no visible effect -> Charles shoots himself -> Laughs at Lelouch at the mind fucking he gave him -> Shows his code -> Says Geass and Guns have no affect. Okham's Razor says: He had the Code, hence why the Geass is never shown completing.
Meh, it was also shown in the next example where it was clearly repelled at the same time. That didn't happen though when he was hit at that time. I don't see why it couldn't have been the case though about the code activation necessity etc. There were some interesting features that could give credence for it, such as the wounds on C.C in her scene with the nun as well. In the end, it was still ambiguous, the whole concept of Codes, Geass, transfers, World of C is ambiguous and thus leaves up a lot of room for interpretation I feel anyway
"That is why we must embrace carnage. In order to not waste the blood that has already been shed, we have no choice but to shed even more."- Lelouch Vi Britannia
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